But Jesus used hyperbole

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MichaelB
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Joined: Sun Mar 13, 2016 11:17 pm

But Jesus used hyperbole

Post by MichaelB » Mon Jun 19, 2017 12:32 am

I've questioned whether Jesus ever used hyperbole (exaggeration), and I know at least one forum member here is adamantly opposed to the idea that He did, but how could He have meant this literally?
If I had not done among them the works which none other man did, they had not had sin...
http://scriptures.info/Scriptures/nt/john/10/
If I had not done among them the works which none other man did, they had not had sin.
John 15:24, KJV
If I had not done among them the works which none other man did, they had not had sin
John 15:24, Joseph Smith Translation

I don't want to be accused of not believing Jesus here, but I think what He's saying (hyperbolically) is that they wouldn't have been as guilty of sin as they were if they hadn't seen His miracles--not that they wouldn't have had sin, or been in need of a savior.

Does anyone take Christ's words so literally here that they believe that the Jewish leaders of His generation would have been without sin if He had done no mighty works among them?

Can anyone deny that Jesus was using hyperbole here?



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